The Four Squares

Perhaps you have already cracked this one! But then there is no harm for a second time!

Very interesting indeed!

MOIL IPO PRICE Band 340-375 - Retail lot 17 minimum maximum 527

The MOIL IPO issue which is opening on November 26, 2010 and closes on December 1, 2010 has been kept in the price band of 340 - 375 a share.  The minimum retail lot has been kept  17 shares and 527 at the maximum   MOIL is the first PSU company in which retail category can invest up to Rs 2 lakhs.

MOIL IPO PRICE BAND 340 TO 375 Minimum Lot Maximum lot for retail category to be announced by company

MOIL IPO price band and the minimum bid lot announced shortly by the  company.

Manganese Ore India Limited MOIL is  head quartered  located at Nagpur, India. MOIL, a company from the government stable is entering with its Initial Public Offering (IPO) enters the capital market on November 26 2010 Price band 340 to 375 a share  Retailers upper limit Rs 2 lakhs Company  operates 10 mines. Of the above while  six are  located in the Nagpur and Bhandara districts of Maharashtra remaining  four is in the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh.

Manganese Ore India Limited,  is offering IPO of 33600000 equity shares of Rs10 each for sale on Nov 26 and the issue closes on December 1 2010  The company is yet to  announce the minimum and maximum lot for retail segment.

The government aims  to raise Rs 1500 crore through the MOIL Initial Public Offering.  Retailers can apply through 35 SEBI approved bankers and retailers get a 5% discount over the final price fixed  In view of the tremendous response expected for the MOIL IPO, the upper price band of Rs 375 will be the final price  With 5 percent discount offered to retail investors, the final price would be  356.25 at the upper band.  .

Watch this column for Retail Minimum and Maximum Lots

Central Bank of India Previous Year GK Paper for Clerk Exam

Central Bank of India Previous Year GK Paper for Clerk Exam


1. The Kishenganga Power Project is in-
A. Orissa
B. Maharashtra
C. Gujarat
D. Jammu & Kashmir
Ans (D)
2. The late Nirmala Desh Pande was a famous
A. diplomat
B. astrologer
C. Social activist
D. film-star
Ans (C)
3. Who has been awarded the Prem Bhatia Award for the year 2008 ?
A. Nilanjana Bose
B. Rupashree Nanda
C. Nirupama Subramanian
D. None of these
Ans (C)
4. Microwave ovens cook dishes by means of
A. Ultraviolet rays
B. Infra-red rays
C. Convection
D. Conduction
Ans (D)
5. Most of the phenomena related to weather take place in
A. stratosphere
B. ionosphere
C. mesosphere
D. troposphere
Ans (D)
6. The current President of the World Bank is
A. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
B. James D. Wolfansen
C. Barbara Cartland
D. Robert Zoellick
Ans (D)
7. Amartya Sen, the NRI Nobel laureate got the honour for his work on
A. Game theory
B. Securities analysis
C. Poverty and famines
D.Impact of Industrialization
Ans (C)
8. The Quit India resolution was passed at the
A. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1940
B. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1941
C. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1942
D. Bombay session of I.N.C. in 1945.
Ans (C)
9. Who among the following is not a ghazal singer?
A. Talat Aziz
B. Chandan Dass
C. Peenaz Masani
D. Jagdev Singh
Ans (D)
10. Nobel Prize for literature in 2007 was received by-
A. Doris Lessing
B. Albert Al Gore
C. Mohammad Yunus
D. None of these
Ans (A)
11. Meteorites are the heavenly bodies
A. between the Mars and the Jupiter
B. between the Saturn and the Neptune
C. between the Mars and the Venus
D. that burn brightly on entering the Earth’s atmosphere
Ans (D)
12. P-5 is a group of
A. highly developed countries
B. Highly populous countries
C. Permanent members of the Security Council
D. Established nuclear powers
Ans (C)
13. Arrange the following in chronological order:
a. Dandi March
b. McDonald Award
c. Hanging of Bhagat Singh
d. Meerut conspiracy case
A. a, b, c, d
B. b, a, c, d
C. d, c, a, b,
D. d, a, c, b
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is a land-locked state?
A. Gujarat
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Ans (C)
15. Which of the following is not an official language as per the 8th schedule?
A. Konkani
B. Sindhi
C. Manipuri
D. English
Ans (D)
16. Which of the following used in making computer chips ?
A. Carbon
B. Uranium
C. Silicon
D. Rubidium
Ans (C)
17. In order to see an undersea object while in a ship, you would make use of a
A. telescope
B. periscope
C. marinoscope
D None of these
Ans (B)
18. Baan Ki-moon , the UNO Secretary-General belong to
A. Saudi Arab
B. Egypt
C. South Korea
D. Brazil
Ans (C)
19. The deepest ocean in the world is
A. The Indian ocean
B. The Atlantic ocean
C. The Pacific ocean
D. None of these
Ans (C)
20. The oldest mutual fund in India is the
A. SBI Mutual Fund
B. BOB Mutual Fund
C. PNB Mutual Fund
D. Unit Trust of India
Ans (D)
21. A candidate for elections to the Lok Sabha stands to lose his Deposit Money if he fails to get
A. 1/5 of the total valid votes
B. 1/8 of the valid votes
C. 1/6 of the valid votes polled
D. none of these
Ans (A)
22. The Varanasi–Kanyakumari National Highway is called
A. N.H. – 8
B. N. H. – 7
C. N.H. – 12
D. N.H. – 9
Ans (B)
23. Which of the following areas of output is witnessing a new revolution?
A. oilseeds
B. fisheries
C. fruits
D. cereals
Ans (A)
24. The W.T.O. came into being on
A. 1st April, 1995
B. 1st April, 1994
C. 1st Jan., 1995
D. 1st Jan., 1996
Ans (C)
25. Bangal was partitioned during the viceroyalty of
A. Lord Rippon
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Minto
Ans (B)
26. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from-
A. Hyundai
B. Maruti-Suzuki
C. Ford Motor
D. General Motor
Ans (C)

MOIL IPO opens on 26 November Closes on December 1, 2010

Manganese Ore India Ltd (MOIL) is opening its IPO on November 26, 2010 and closes on December 1, 2010


Shipping Corporation of India (SCI) opens its FPO on 30 November 2010 and closes on December 3, 2010








Pl. see www.maharashtraspider.com

MOIL (Manganese Ore) IPO on November 26

MOIL (Manganese Ore) IPO on November 26
The retail investors had never had so good Following the huge success of Coal India and Power Grid two more offerings from government stable hits the market next week MOIL is out with an IPO on November 26, 2010 and Shipping Corporation of Indi on November 30, 2010 Though both the issues are opening in the same week and will overlap with each other, the lead managers to the issues are confident of the two issues being oversubscribed as there is an insatiable interest among the investing community for the new issues in the primary market, especially from PSUs. .
MOIL's is entering the market for the first time and 3.3-crore shares are offered to the public and opens on November 26 and will close for institutional bidders on November 30 and for other investors on December 1. And SCI's 8.4-crore fresh or follow on public offering will open on November 30 and close on December 2 for institutions and December 3, 2010 for the retail and HNI categories.
The retail investors upper cap is at the enhanced limit of Rs 2 lakhs in addition to the 5 percent discount to the retail investors. This should be in the form of new year gift from the PSU if listing of earlier issues is any indication Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and domestic institutional investors have an appetite especially for the PSU scrips.
There are a number of l PSUs from the government stable which are to enter the capital market this fiscal for the divestment program of the Government with almost atleast one offering every month, according to an official in the Ministry of Divestment. ““All the stakeholders have agreed to the dates that have been fixed, even though the SCI and MOIL dates overlap, the call is that there is enough appetite in the markets to make both the issues a success.”
The number of different types of investors includes those for IPOs and FPOs. The book running lead managers to MOIL are IDBI Capital, Edelweiss Capital and JP Morgan India, .while that for SCI, FPO it is SBI Capital Markets, ICICI Securities and IDFC Capital.
After the above 2 issues other IPOs and FPOs from the PSU divestment is in Hindustan Copper which is opening on December 6, 2010 and yet to follow FPOs include from SAIL, ONGC and IOC during the current fiscal.
The book running lead managers to the issue, also feel that there is enough investor interest for IPOs and FPOs to get it oversubscribed several times. Investors can apply for the issues under ASBA. According to market sources there has been a tremendous increase in the number of demat accounts opened with banks for applying for the above IPO and FPO.

SBI Bonds listed at 5 percent premium

SBI Bonds listed at 5 percent premium

The SBI which entered the market last month with bonds at interest rates of 9.25 percent for 10 years and 9.5 percent for 15 years have been listed at a premium of 5 percent, which in other words mean those who buy now will get yields of less than 9 percent taking the premium over issue price. SBI Bonds was oversubscribed by 17 times While launching the bonds O.P.Bhatt Chairman of SBI said that the “the bank decided to offer an attractive return on its bonds because it planned to create a retail market for its long-term bonds, which it would sell every quarter. “. The Bond sale was like an IPO offer from Government stable as a 5 percent listing for one lakh worth bonds would give a return of 5000 in a month’s time which is very attractive to retail customers.

High net worth individuals who bought bonds aimed at emerging opportunity and do not have the intention of locking up the bonds for 10 or 15 years
According to leading Merchant bankers “investors are getting an opportunity to exit because there was a lot of institutional demand for the bonds during the public offering, which was oversubscribed over 17 times. This ensured there were buyers in the secondary market. Some bond houses are also buying at 8.8% since there are many provident funds that are willing to invest in an SBI bond at a yield of 8.75%, which leaves a decent margin.”

Further, according to a merchant banker “SBI can afford to provide a higher return on its bonds in a rising interest rate situation since the resources raised can be deployed at a higher yield. Also determining the coupon the bank would have found it necessary to offer a return higher than its three-year fixed deposits which are also reasonably liquid. An attractive pricing also gives the bank an opportunity to build new relationships,” said the head of corporate debt with an investment bank.

.

Generation gap !

During one "generation gap" quarrel with his parents young Michael cried, "I want excitement, adventure, money, and beautiful women. I'll never find it here at home, so I'm leaving. Don't try and stop me!"

With that he headed toward the door. His father rose and followed close behind.

"Didn't you hear what I said? I don't want you to try and stop me."

"Who's trying to stop you?" replied his father. "If you wait a minute, I'll go with you."
S

Bank Clerk Post Recruitment. UCO Bank Officer Indian Bank Examination and Recruitment : Indian Bank Clerk and Officer Post Corporation Bank Officer and Clerk

Bank Clerk Post Recruitment. UCO Bank Officer
Indian Bank Examination and Recruitment : Indian Bank Clerk and Officer Post
Corporation Bank Officer and Clerk

General English Knowledge

Spelling Questions
1. Which of the following words are incorrectly spelt?
A) separate B) ordnance C) obviously D) sucess E) none of these
2. Choose the pair of words that best completes the sentence
The ——– of the timetable caused some ———-
A) rivision B) revision C) revission D) revition
A) inconvenience B) inconvenince C) inconveneince D)inconvenience
3. The following list of 20 words contains 10 that are incorrectly spelt. Write the
letter that corresponds to each incorrectly spelt word in the answer box
A) occurence
B) dissipate
C) weird
D) accommodate
E) embarassment
F) ecstacy
G) repetition
H) batallion
I) dispair
J) irritable
K) accidently
L) liaison
M) memento
N) millenium
O) yield
P) existance
Q) independent
R) insistant
S) excede
T) privilege
Answers
1. D
2. B A
3. A E F H I K N P R S
Missing Word Questions
Example Questions
4. Which of these words completes the sentence in the way that makes most sense?
A spirit-level should be used to ensure that the surface is ———–
A) straight B) flat C) horizontal D) parallel E) aligned
5. Which of these words completes the sentence in the way that makes most sense?
He avoided ——— because he was ————
A) redundency B) indispensable C) redundancy D) indispensible
6. Which of these words completes the sentence in the way that makes most sense?
The plan must be ——— to make the project ————
A) feasible B) revised C) rivised D) feasable
Answers
4. C
5. C B
6. B A
7. Which of these is the missing word?
kick, ———–, walk
A) throw B) toes C) shin D) feet E) hand
27
8. Which of these is the missing word?
key, ———–, walk
A) lock B) stand C) board D) fob E) stone
9. Which of these is the missing word?
water, ———–, over
A) ice B) drive C) wet D) flow E) fall
Answers
7. D – Feet are used for both kicking and walking.
8. C – Board forms the words ‘keyboard’ and ‘boardwalk’
9. E – Fall forms ‘waterfall’ and ‘fall over’
Related Word Questions
Example Questions
7. Which of these is the missing word?
kick, ———–, walk
A) throw B) toes C) shin D) feet E) hand
27
8. Which of these is the missing word?
key, ———–, walk
A) lock B) stand C) board D) fob E) stone
9. Which of these is the missing word?
water, ———–, over
A) ice B) drive C) wet D) flow E) fall
Answers
7. D – Feet are used for both kicking and walking.
8. C – Board forms the words ‘keyboard’ and ‘boardwalk’
9. E – Fall forms ‘waterfall’ and ‘fall over’
Word Pair Questions
Example Questions
13. Dog is to canine as wolf is to ———
A) vulpine B) ursine C) piscine D) bovine E) lupine
14. Sadness is to happiness as defeat is to ———
A) joy B) victory C) tears D) victor E) none of these
15. Paper is to timber as ——— is to hide
A) tree B) seek C) ox D) animal E) leather
Answers
13. E – lupine means ‘relating to the characteristics of wolves’
14. B – The word pairs are opposites
15. E – Paper is made from timber, leather is made from hide
Sample Word Relationship Questions
1) medicine is to illness as law is to ——-
A B C D
anarchy discipline treason etiquette
2) square is to cube as circle is to ——-
A B C D
round ball pi sphere
3) king is to throne as judge is to ——-
A B C D
lawyer bench court trial
4) nib is to pen as lens is to ——-
A B C D
seeing glass focus telescope
5) settlement is to injury as pension is to ——-
A B C D
pensioner maturity retirement age
Instruction: Identify the relationship between the word pair in the question.
Circle the answer where the word pair shown has the most similar relationship.
6) levee : flood
A B C D
dam : lake armour : helmet helmet : injury water : tide
7) color : spectrum
A B C D
verse : rhyme tone : scale noise : waves waves : sound
extort : obtain
A B C D
purify : strain steal : borrow explode : ignite pilfer : steal
9) heel : foot
A B C D
beam : ship hand : palm stern : boat cruiser : vessel
10) slight : hurt
A B C D
lag : tardiness sound : noise time : lateness blind : light
Instruction: Identify the relationship between the word group in the question.
Circle the answer which fits best with the group.
11) barber, florist, draper
A B C D
flower cloth milliner hair
12) alps, pennines, pyrenees
A B C D
rockies dolomites urals himalayas
13) throw, volley, sling
A B C D
hurl grab seize catch
14) pine, fir, cypress
A B C D
mahogany oak spruce teak
15) wool, silk, leather
A B C D
cotton nylon linen fur
Answers to Verbal Ability – Word Relationship
1) A 2) D 3) B
4) D 5) C 6) C
7) D B 9) C
10) A 11) C 12) B
13) A 14) C 15) D

Bank Test Examination Paper Arithmetic Question and Answers

Bank Test Examination Paper Arithmetic Question and Answers
Arithmetic Questions
1. 139 + 235 =
A) 372 B) 374 C) 376 D) 437
2. 139 – 235 =
A) -69 B) 96 C) 98 D) -96
3. 5 x 16 =
A) 80 B) 86 C) 88 D) 78
4. 45 / 9 =
A) 4.5 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
5. 15% of 300 =
A) 20 B) 45 C) 40 D) 35
6. ½ + ¼ x 3/4 =
A) 3/8 B) 13/8 C) 9/16 D) ¾
Answers
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. C
These questions are directly applicable to many administrative and clerical jobs but
can also appear as a component of graduate and managerial tests. The speed at
which you can answer these questions is the critical measure, as most people could
achieve a very high score given unlimited time in which to answer. You can therefore
expect 25-35 questions in 20-30 minutes.
Number Sequences
These questions require you to find the missing number in a sequence of numbers.
This missing number may be at the beginning or middle but is usually at the end.
7. Find the next number in the series
4 8 16 32 –
A) 48 B) 64 C) 40 D) 46
8. Find the next number in the series
4 8 12 20 –
A) 32 B) 34 C) 36 D) 38
9. Find the missing number in the series
54 49 — 39 34
A) 47 B) 44 C) 45 D) 46
10. Find the first number in the series
– 19 23 29 31
A) 12 B) 15 C) 16 D) 17
These number sequences can be quite simple like the examples above. However, you
will often see more complex questions where it is the interval between the numbers
that is the key to the sequence.
11. Find the next number in the series
3 6 11 18 –
A) 30 B) 22 C) 27 D) 29
12. Find the next number in the series
48 46 42 38 –
A) 32 B) 30 C) 33 D) 34
These number sequences usually consist of four visible numbers plus one missing
number. This is because the test designer needs to produce a sequence into which
only one number will fit. The need to avoid any ambiguity means that if the number
48
Sequence relies on a more complex pattern then there will need to be more visible
numbers.
For example;
13. Find the missing number in the series
4 3 5 9 12 17 –
A) 32 B) 30 C) 24 D) 26
14. Find the missing numbers in the series
5 6 7 8 10 11 14 — –
A) 19 B) 17 C) 15 D) 16
15. Find the missing numbers in the series
1 — 4 7 7 8 10 9 –
A) 6 B) 3 C) 11 D) 13
Answers
7. B – The numbers double each time
8. A – Each number is the sum of the previous two numbers
9. B – The numbers decrease by 5 each time
10. D – The numbers are primes (divisible only by 1 and themselves)
11. C – The interval, beginning with 3, increases by 2 each time
12. B – The interval, beginning with 2, increases by 2 and is subtracted each time
13. D – Each number is the sum of the previous and the number 3 places to the left
14. C A – There are 2 simple interleaved sequences 5, 7,10,14,19 and 6, 8, 11, 15
15. A D – There are 2 simple interleaved sequences 1,4,7,10,13 and 6,7,8,9
To solve these number sequence questions efficiently, you should first check the
relationship between the numbers themselves looking for some simple arithmetic
relationship. Then look at the intervals between the numbers and see if there is a
relationship there. If not, and particularly if there are more than 4 numbers visible,
then there may be two number sequences interleaved.
You will occasionally find multiplication, division, or powers used in these sequences,
but test designers tend to avoid them as these operations soon lead to large
Numbers which are difficult to work out without a calculator.
Sample Comprehension Questions
Glaciers begin to form where snow remains year-round and enough of it accumulates to transform into ice. New layers of snow compress the previous layers and this compression forces the icy snow to re-crystallize, forming grains similar in size and shape to cane sugar. Gradually the grains grow larger and the air pockets between the grains get smaller, meaning that the snow slowly becomes denser. After about two winters, the snow turns into fern, an intermediate state between snow and ice. Over time the larger ice crystals become more compressed and even denser, this is known as glacial ice. Glacial ice, because of its density and ice crystals, often takes
a bluish or even green hue.
1) Glaciers cannot form where snow does not remain all year round.
A B C
True False Can’t Say
2) Fern is less dense than snow but more dense than ice.
A B C
True False Can’t Say
3) Glacial ice is always greenish or bluish in color.
A B C
True False Can’t Say
4) Snow falls every year in areas where glaciers form.
A B C
True False Can’t Say
5) The increase in density is caused by the grains becoming smaller.
A B C
True False Can’t Say
Arithmetic question for bank test and exam, Bank test, question answer for bank test, Arithmetic Questions, test paper, examination paper 2010, model paper, model paper for Bank test , model set of Papers

UCO PSB Bank Clerkl Examination Old Question Paper | UCO Bank Sample Questions | UCO Bank Clerical Question

UCO PSB Bank Clerkl Examination Old Question Paper | UCO Bank Sample Questions | UCO Bank Clerical Question

s. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions.
For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports.
This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs.
However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.
1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector?
(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these
2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening
4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market
(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these
5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these
6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these
7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional
9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk
10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.
11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these
Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge
13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically
15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; thenanswer the eustions given below them.
(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.
(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.
16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is theanswer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)
22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)
23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)
24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)
25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)
26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5)
27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5)
28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5)
29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)
30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5)
Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
31. When do you intend to return back home?
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required
32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required
33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required
34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required
35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required
36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required
37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required
38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required
39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required
40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required
Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.
41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through
42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing
43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want
44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance
45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited
47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively
48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past
49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular
50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn
ANSWERS:-
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)

Indian Bank Officers Exam Solved Questions - Answers 2010

Indian Bank Officers Exam Solved Placement Paper 2010

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and worksites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many States. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families ? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act-upto Rs. 3,000/- per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances.
It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank.
However delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non-maintenance of muster rolls and job cards etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries–the workload has remained without the ‘inducements’. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.
The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model wherein bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system asProgramme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with, where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats andpost offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
1. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers ?
(A) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(B) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(C) They have been unable to provide for their families
(D) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages ?
(A) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(B) Improper record keeping
(C) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(D) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(E) Delays in work measurement
Ans : (D)
3. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been ?
(A) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(B) Increased workload for local government officials
(C) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(D) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence(s) of delayed wage payments ?
(1) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(2) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(3) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)
5. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments ?
(A) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff.
(B) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(C) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(D) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(E) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages
Ans : (E)
6. which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(1) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(2) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(3) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS ?
(A) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(B) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(C) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(D) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(E) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Ans : (A)
8. What solution has the author suggested to expedite NREGS wage payments ?
(A) Empower the Central Employment Guarantee Council to monitor the NREGS
(B) Implement payment of wages in cash at all worksites
(C) Restrict the amount of funds to local government bodies in order to curb frauds
(D) Provide attendance records to workers so that they have proof to claim their wages
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. What is the author’s view about the government’s solution to the problem of delayed wage payments ?
(A) He agrees with it as workers will not have to bear the expense of travelling long distances to claim their wages
(B) He is not in favour of it as funds can be misappropriated by agents
(C) He welcomes it as the time consuming work measurement process will be done away with
(D) He feels it does not address the core issues plaguing the scheme
(E) He feels it will ensure flawless implementation of the scheme
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following can be said about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme ?
(1) Skilled engineers are not compensated under this scheme.
(2) The scheme should be implemented only in famine prone areas.
(3) Employers have not complied with all the requirements of the scheme.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (2) and(3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Isolated
(A) Lonely
(B) Separated
(C) Detached
(D) Hidden
(E) Rare
Ans : (E)
12. Confined
(A) Locked
(B) Restricted
(C) Detained
(D) Captured
(E) Imprisoned
Ans : (B)
13. Desert
(A) Betray
(B) Escape
(C) Barren
(D) Abandon
(E) Vacant
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Convenient
(A) Troublesome
(B) Annoying
(C) Appropriate
(D) Easy
(E) Distant
Ans : (A)
15. Deliberate
(A) Unsteady
(B) Abrupt
(C) Mistake
(D) Chosen
(E) Accidental
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as theanswer.
16. Unless the government monitored the loan waiver scheme well, it is likely to be a success.
(A) For the government to monitor
(B) Unless the government monitors
(C) Though the government monitored
(D) If the government monitors
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
17. The main objective of hiring this consultant is in assessing that this data can be computerised.
(A) assessing that
(B) an assessment of
(C) to assess how
(D) for assessing that when
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
18. The designs finally ready and we shall submit them for approval tomorrow, well before the specified deadline.
(A) Designs finally will be
(B) Designs are finally
(C) Final designs
(D) Designing finally
(E) No correction required.
Ans : (B)
19. Most irrigation projects have delayed due to lack of adequate government funding.
(A) have been delayed from
(B) will be delayed for
(C) were delaying due to
(D) are delayed because of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
20. Many Indian companies import components from China as they are cheap compared to those manufactured locally.
(A) as they are cheap as
(B) because it is cheaper
(C) since these are cheaper
(D) which is cheap
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. Your marketing strategy (A) should be devised (B) dependent (C) on the kind of business you own. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
22. The file contents (A) a revised (B) estimate (C) of the banking industry’s manpower requirements (D) for the next year. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. To better understand the challenges (A) of starting a new venture (B) he read (C) up extensively. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
24. Since our financial resources (A) are limitless (B) we cannot afford (C) this alternative. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)
25. His main reasoning (A) for applying (B) for this promotion is the possibility (C) of an overseas posting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. Voluntary measures such as codes of conduct have failed to address these issues and deliver change.
2. However they can also cause serious problems with their irresponsible behaviour.
3. Companies are a powerful force for good.
4. There are several instances of companies undermining worker’s rights and damaging the environment.
5. The Comapnies Bill 2009 is thus a means to address issues of corporate governance and ensure companies are accountable for the financial performance and social impact.
6. They provide jobs, boost economies and aid social and environmental development.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–`40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Despite the merger (A) / the airline has reported (B) / sizeable losses and is unable (C) / to pay their employees. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
32. We have recently began (A) / the process of recruiting (B) / insurance agents for (C) / our North-Eastern branches. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
33. The company’s decision to issue (A) / bonus shares clearly indicates (B) / the management’s confident (C) / about the future. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
34. Inspite that organisations are aware (A) / of the importance of IT (B) / they often do not know (C) / how to deploy it effectively. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
35. Keeping in mind that India (A) / is one of the world’s fastest (B) / growing economies many international (C) / companies are invested in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
36. Although interlinking of rivers will (A) / help tackle drought, the government (B) / has not paid much (C) / attention to this project. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
37. The rise in prices of food items is (A) / likely the cause of inflation (B) / to exceed eight percent (C) / during the next quarter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
38. Many people believe that (A) / the nationalisation of banks (B) / in the 1960s have proteced India (C) / from the current financial crisis. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
39. RBI in favour (A) / of amending currently (B) / policies governing operations of (C) / foreign banks in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
40. These recently upgraded branch offices (A) / have been fully computerised (B) / and are connected to headquarters (C) / to ensure proper monitoring. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The …(41)… of India as an econonmic superpower is not reflected in the …(42)… of life enjoyed by its 1.2 billion citizens according to the Human Development Index which …(43)… India very low among 182 countries. In our performance oriented world, measurement issues have taken on …(44)… importance as what we measure affects what we do. In fact the French President has established an international commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress owing to his …(45)… and that of others with the current state of statistical information about the economy and society.
The big question concerns …(46)… Gross Domestic Product (GDP) provides a good measure of living standards. In many cases GDP statistics seem to …(47)… that the economy is doing far better than most citizens feel it is. Moreover the focus on GDP creates conflicts-while political leaders are told to maximise it, citizens also demand that …(48)… be paid to enhancing security, reducing air, water and noise pollution all of which actually …(49)… GDP growth. Statistics are …(50)… to summarise what is going on in our complex society, it is therefore obvious that we can’t reduce everything to a single number–GDP.
41. (A) tribute
(B) pursuit
(C) perception
(D) conversion
(E) title
Ans : (E)
42. (A) loss
(B) quality
(C) spirit
(D) span
(E) joy
Ans : (B)
43. (A) counted
(B) scored
(C) qualified
(D) regard
(E) ranked
Ans : (E)
44. (A) negligible
(B) great
(C) unduly
(D) trivial
(E) considerably
Ans : (B)
45. (A) obedience
(B) confidence
(C) belief
(D) dissatisfaction
(E) compliance
Ans : (D)
46. (A) that
(B) unless
(C) because
(D) against
(E) whether
Ans : (E)
47. (A) suggest
(B) recommend
(C) think
(D) point
(E) refer
Ans : (A)
48. (A) compensation
(B) respect
(C) debt
(D) attention
(E) expense
Ans : (D)
49. (A) recover
(B) lower
(C) attain
(D) decline
(E) shrunk
Ans : (B)
50. (A) inferred
(B) difficult
(C) interpret
(D) reveal
(E) intended
Ans : €
Source : bankexaminations blogspot.com:

Model Paper of Syndicate Bank Clerk Examination Part I

Model Paper of Syndicate Bank Clerk Examination Part I

1. Reasoning Ability
1. In a certain code, ‘ROAMING’ is written as ‘APRNGOI’. How would ‘PLATEAU’ be written in the same code? (1) AMPTUBE (2) PMAUEBU (3) ALPUUAE (4) AMPUUBE
(5) None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Horse (2) Donkey (3) Cow (4) Goat (5) Dog
3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters of the word ‘STOP’ each using only once in a word but in different sequence, starting with the letter P?
(1)None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) More than three
4. ‘Mother’ is related to ‘Offspring’ in the same way as ‘Tree’ is related to — (1) Sapling (2) Fruit (3) Root (4) Stem (5) None of these
5. In a certain code, ‘SPRING’ is written as ‘#2%@4=’ and ‘GONE’ is written as ‘=74©’. How would SIGN be written in the same code?
(1)#@4= (2)2@=4 (3) #@=4 (4) #%=4 (5) None of these
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) June (2)Year (3) Week (4) Month (5) Day
7. ‘Date’ is related to ‘Calendar’ in the same way as ‘Time’ is related to — (1) Day (2) Hour (3) Sun (4) Clock (5) None of these
8. Pointing to Raju, Ayesha says “He is the son of my mother’s brother’s wife”. How is Ayesha related to Raju? (1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Cousin Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
9. Tom walked 10 miles from Point P towards the East. He then took right turn and walked 5 miles and taking another right turn walked again for another 5 miles. In which direction is Point
P from where Tom is standing now?
(1) West (2) North-West (3) North-East (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)21 (2)51 (3) 63 (4) 15 (5)23
11. If ‘green’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘pink’ and ‘pink’
is called ‘black’, then what is the colour of milk?
(1) green (2) blue (3) pink (4) yellow (5) None of these
12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONTROL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than Three
13. In a group of six children T, K, V, O, M and W,T is fatter than M but not as fat as W. K is not the fattest nor is
W whereas V is the thinnest. Who is the fattest among them all?
(1)O (2)T (3)M (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
14. In a certain code language, ‘TEMPORARY’ is written as ‘SFLQOQBOZ’. How would ‘WONDERFUL’ be written in the same code?
(1) VPMEFQGTM (2) VPMEESGTM (3) XPMEEQGTM (4) VPMEESEVK (5) None of these
15. ‘Teacher’ is related to ‘students’ in the same way as ‘Coach’ is related to (1) Team (2) Player (3) Sports (4) Play (5) None of these
Directions (16-20): Study the following arrangement of letter-number-symbol and answer the questions given below:
K3A VTR = 7BME4WS @JN9PUC Z5ODIQG LY
16. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is preceded by symbol and immediately followed by a Vowel?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
17. In the above arrangement what should come in the place of the question-mark (?) in the following series? AKVT =TRMEBW?
(1)SW@ (2)S4J (3)S4@ (4)@WH (5) None of these
18. How many such Consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is preceded by symbol and immediately followed by a number?
(1)One (2)Two (3) Three (4) None (5) None of these
19. In the above arrangement if the first twenty elements are written in the reverse order then what is the Sixth element to the left of eighteenth element from the left?
(1)B (2)= (3)7 (4)E (5) None of these
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) CP (2) @WJ 3) 7RB (4) IOQ 5)A3V
Directions (Q. 21-25): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
21. Statements: Some plates are spoons.
All spoons are forks. All forks are bowls. Some bowls are utensils.
Conclusions: I. Some plates are bowls.
II. All spoons are bowls.
III. Some forks are utensils.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only I and III follow
4) Only I and II follow 5) None of these
22. Statements: Some books are files.
All files are discs. Some discs are boards. All boards are keys.
Conclusions: I. Some books are keys.
II. No book is key.
III. Some discs are keys.
1) Only III follows 2) Only I and III follow
3) Either I or II and III follow 4) All follow 5) None of these
23. Statements: All buses are trains.
Some trains are cars. No car is scooter.
All scooters are jeeps. Conclusions: I. Some cars are buses.
II. All jeeps are scooters. III. No jeep is train.
l)Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows
4) Only either I or III follows 5) None follows
24. Statements: All curtains are pillows.
No pillow is mattress. Some mattresses are beds. All beds are sofas.
Conclusions: I. No bed is pillow.
II. Some mattresses are sofas. III. Some beds are pillows.
1) Only either I or III follows 2) Only II follows
3) Only II and either I or III follow 4) Only I and II follow
5) All follow
25. Statements: Some pulses are grains.
Some grains are sprouts. All sprouts are nuts.
No fruit is nut. Conclusions : I. Some nuts are pulses.
II. Some nuts are grains. III. No fruit is sprout.
1) Only II and III follow 2) Only I and II follow
3) Only either I or II follows 4) None follows 5) None of these

FPO from Shipping Corporation to hit market on 30-11-2010 – 03-12-2010

FPO from Shipping Corporation to hit market on 30-11-2010 – 03-12-2010,

The Shipping Corporation of India (SCI) in a filing with the Bombay Stick Exchange announced that , the company will enter the capital market on November 30, 2010  with a FPO which would raise $320 million from the Market, through sale of 20% equity sale.  The government will sell 10 percent equity while the company will issue another 10 prcent fresh equity.  . The company has communicated to the Bombay Stock Exchange as per listing conditions that the bidding program for the follow on offer - Issue opens on  November 30, 2010 and will close   om for retail investors  on December 03, 2010 The upper cap for small investors will be Rs 2 lakh.

The proceeds from the sale would be deployed to fund acquisition of nine vessels .

MOIL IPO to hit market 26 November

MOIL IPO to hit market 26 November

The massive and good response to Coal India and Power Grid Corporation which was a Diwali Gift from Government  of India by listing at a good premium and 5 percent discount After the huge response to the Initial Public Offering of Coal India and Power Grid Corporation,  the Government owned Manganese Ore India Ltd ( MOIL ) is hitting the capital market with its Initial Public Offering of  3.38 crore shares.  Government of India is divesting 10% and Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra governments will divest 5 per cent stake each in the undertaking, totaling 20% equity of the company  The Government is raising Rs 1500 crores from the divestment.  

While 2 percent is reserved for employees, along with 5 percent discount and Rs 2 cap for retail investors, the retail  investors have a good year ahead.

Shiping Corporation of India is entering the market with its FPO on December 6, 2010.

Watch this column for the price band of MOIL.

MOIL IPO to hit market on 26 November 2010

Manganese Ore India Ltd (MOIL) Government PSU IPO

Manganese Ore India Ltd (MOIL),a PSU from the government stable is entering the capital with its Initial Public Offering on November 26, 2010. This is the initial offer by the Company to investors to participate in the share sale by government. The company has been given the status of Mini Ratna The PSU would dilute 20 percent of government’s holding With this issue the retail investors cap on maximum amount has been hiked to Rs 2 lakhs from Rs 1 lakh with the recent gazette Notifiation.

The company's manganese iron ore reserves are estimated at t 69 million tonne. Earlier CMD of the company KJ Singh said the” company had reserves to the tune of Rs 1,700 crore and was not looking at any raising any cash. He also added that the company operated at 60% plus margins and would maintain the same”.
MOIL operates 10 mines in India – while six mines are located in Maharashtra four are in Madhya Pradesh. The total production of manganese ore constitutes about 50% of requirement of the country. MOIL is the largest iron ore company in India and fifth largest in world.
The company has also diversified into renewable energy source and is the first PSU in India to set up wind farm of 20 MW capacity in the Nagda / Ratedi Hills in Madhya Pradesh.
The company has been making consistent profits since last 15 years and will use its cash reserve for capacity expansion to 1.5 mta from 1.1 mta. For the financial year ended 2010, MOIL t has reported net sales of Rs 963 crore as against Rs 1282 crore in FY09 and net profit at Rs 466 crore versus Rs 664 crore.

Manganese Ore India Ltd, MOIL, Initial Public Offering. IPO, Opens on November 26, 2010 Mini Ratna diversified to renewable energy Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manganese ore reserves

Bangaluru hosts World Sanskrit Book Fair January 7 – 10, 2010

Bangaluru hosts World Sanskrit Book Fair January 7 – 10, 2011

The World Sanskrit Book Fair is to be held in Bangalore from January 7 to 10, 2011. Please click here for further details

Forthcoming IPOs to hit Primary Market in November 2010/December 2010 and in FY 2010-2011

Following companies have already filed Offer Documents with Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and many of these comparies enter the primary market either through an Initial Public Offering (IPO) or Follow On Public Offer, after SEBI completes its”Processing” of the Offer Documents. The companies after entry into the capital market through IPO or FPO will get listed in National Stock Exchange (NSE) or Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)

RRP Infra Projects Limited
Claris Lifesciences Limited
Orient Green Power Company Limited
Techpro Systems Limited
Greatship (India) Limited
One 97 Communications Limited
IND-Barath Power Infra Limited
NKG Infrastructure Limited
Milestone Capital Advisors Limited
Planet 41 Mobi-Venture Limited
Shekhawati Poly-Yarn Limted
Rajputana Stainless Limited
Jain Infraprojects Limited
VMS Industries Limited
Virgo Engineers Limited
Tunip Agro Limited
Embassy Property Developments Limited
Entertainment world Developers Limited
SRS Limited
Birla Pacific Medspa Limited
A2Z Maintenance & Engineering Services Limited
Betul Oil Limited

HINDUSTAN COPPER CORPORATION
MANGANESE ORE INDIA
PUNJAB & SIND BANK LTD
SHIPPING CORPORATION OF INDIA
SAIL
ONGC

POWER GRID Status of Allotment & Listing

FPO POWER GRID Status of Allotment & Listing

Power Grid Corporation.from the Government of Stable has fixed an issue price at Rs 90 a share with a 5% discount to retail investors @ Rs 85.50.
Keeping in view the oversubscription of the Power Grid issue, marketmen believe shares will be alloted in the ratio of 1for every 4 for retail investors. The retail portion was oversubscribed by 3.85 times.

The registrar for Power Grid FPO – Karvy Computershare Pvt Ltd is yet to update the allotment database with the details of allotment, which is expected shortly Please see this column for your allotment in the FPO of Power Grid Corporation.

Power Grid FPO Listing

The shares allotted under the FPO can be traded on the BSE and NSE from November 23rd as per reliable sources. Hence the investors demat account will be credited with the allotted shares on 22 or 21 November and the refunds are expected to be credited by ECS to the bank accounts for those retail investors who have applied online.

Ex-date for Bonus Shares, Split in Face Value and Bonus shares for BSE shares Updated List

Ex-dates for the various shares listed in Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) for bonus shares, split in stock value or right shares updated list. Please
click HERE

Record date for BSE SHARES for split value, Bonus shares and right shares today's updated

Companies declare record dates for various purposes including bonus shares, split in face value or right shares For this purpose companies by communication to the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) fixes the record dates

Please
click here for latest information on record date

Welcome to NVG's blog

Welcome to NVG's blog